SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam SLE Mock Test - Part 8

 Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam Questions

www.pharmacyuop.blogspot.com

176) The illness of diphtheria, primarily affects which part of the body?

A) Small intestine

B) Large intestine

C) Respiratory system

D) Bloodstream

E) Stomach

177) Which class of antidepressants is generally less likely to exacerbate seizure activity compared to other classes of  antidepressants?

A) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

C) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

D) Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

E) Atypical antidepressants

178) Raised, itchy, red patches with central clearing are the characteristic features of conditions like;

a- herpes simplex virus infection

b- tinea corporis

c- contact dermatitis

d- psoriasis or eczema

e- pemphigus vulgaris

179) A medical term that refers to an abnormally high white blood cell count, is?

A) Neutropenia

B) Leukopenia

C) Leukocytosis

D) Thrombocytosis

E) Agranulocytosis

180) A patient experiences hypertensive crisis requiring rapid lowering of blood pressure. Which of the following medications is MOST LIKELY to be administered intravenously (IV) for its fast-acting vasodilatory effect?

A) Enalaprilat

B) Hydralazine

C) Fenoldopam

D) Labetalol

E) Nitroglycerin

181) Vonoprazan belongs to which class of medications used to treat gastrointestinal conditions?

A) Antacids

B) H2-receptor antagonists

C) Proton pump inhibitors

D) Antidiarrheal medications

E) Probiotics

182) Which enzyme is primarily responsible for reducing hydrogen peroxide in cells?

a. Catalase

b. Superoxide dismutase

c. Glutathione peroxidase

d. Lipoxygenase

e. Cyclooxygenase

183) Which vitamin acts as a potent lipid-soluble antioxidant, protecting membranes from oxidative damage?

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin C

c. Vitamin D

d. Vitamin E

e. Vitamin K

184) To correct hypomagnesemia, which ion is typically administered to patients?

a. Calcium

b. Magnesium

c. Potassium

d. Sodium

e. Chloride

185) The immunoglobulin that activates the complement system is:

a- immunoglobulin D

b- immunoglobulin M

c- immunoglobulin G

d- immunoglobulin A

e- immunoglobulin E

186) In the case of hyperkalemia, which of the following is often used to help lower potassium levels?

a. Insulin and glucose

b. Calcium gluconate

c. Sodium bicarbonate

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

187) Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for the release of dopamine, influencing reward and pleasure centers?

a. Amygdala

b. Hippocampus

c. Prefrontal cortex

d. Substantia nigra

e. Hypothalamus

188) Which medication is commonly used to treat bradycardia by increasing heart rate?

a. Atropine

b. Lidocaine

c. Amiodarone

d. Digoxin

e. Furosemide

189) Endorphins are most closely related to which type of sensation?

a. Pain

b. Vision

c. Taste

d. Hearing

e. Balance

190) For the treatment of acute hypercalcemia, which of the following is often administered?

a. Thiazide diuretics

b. Loop diuretics

c. Calcium supplements

d. Vitamin D

e. Potassium chloride

191) Which enzyme breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, terminating the signal transmission?

a. Monoamine oxidase

b. Catechol-O-methyltransferase

c. Acetylcholinesterase

d. Tyrosine hydroxylase

e. Glutaminase

192) In cases of digoxin toxicity, which of the following treatments is used to bind and inactivate the drug?

a. Digoxin immune fab

b. Activated charcoal

c. Beta-blockers

d. Calcium channel blockers

e. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

193) To manage acute hyponatremia, which solution is typically administered?

a. Hypertonic saline

b. Hypotonic saline

c. Isotonic saline

d. Dextrose 5% in water

e. Lactated Ringer's solution

194) Which of the following drugs is used to counteract the effects of potassium-sparing diuretics and prevent hyperkalemia?

a. Furosemide

b. Spironolactone

c. Amiloride

d. Hydrochlorothiazide

e. Acetazolamide

195) Which type of receptor is primarily responsible for the effects of opioid analgesics?

a. Muscarinic receptors

b. NMDA receptors

c. GABA receptors

d. Nicotinic receptors

e. Mu receptors

196) Which of the following statements about transcription is accurate?

a. After initiation, the next step in transcription is termination

b. The enzyme initiating transcription is DNA polymerase

c. The enzyme initiating transcription is RNA polymerase

d. During transcription, the genetic code in tRNA is converted into protein structure

e. Transcription involves the splicing of exons

197) What is the function of a promoter in transcription?

a. To terminate transcription

b. To bind RNA polymerase and initiate transcription

c. To splice exons together

d. To translate mRNA into protein

e. To replicate the DNA template

198) Which of the following modifications occurs to eukaryotic pre-mRNA before it becomes mature mRNA?

a. Addition of a 5' cap.

b. Addition of a poly-A tail.

c. Splicing of introns.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

199) During transcription in eukaryotic cells, which of the following processes removes non-coding sequences from the pre-mRNA transcript?

a. Capping

b. Polyadenylation

c. Splicing

d. Translation

e. Replication

200) To treat hypokalemia induced by cardiac glycosides, activation of the Na+-K+-ATPase pump is achieved by administering which chemical substance?

a. magnesium

b. potassium chloride

c. bicarbonate

d. insulin

e. vitamin D

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam SLE Mock Test - Part 7

  Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam Questions

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151) Two pounds are equal to how many ounces?

a- 8 ounces

b- 16 ounces

c- 32 ounces

d- 48 ounces

e- 64 ounces

152) "Gtt I OU TID" is a medical abbreviation that stands for

a- one drop in each eye three times a day

b- three drops in each eye three times a day

c- one drop in the right eye  two times a day

d- one drop in each eye every day

e- three drops in the left eye three times a day

153) What is the quantity of drug present in a 5 mL injection with a concentration of 0.4%?

a-0.2 mg 

b-2 mg

c-20 mg

d-200 mg

e-2000 mg

154) A thyroxine overdose can cause a variety of symptoms,  ranging from mild to life-threatening, depending on the amount ingested and the individual's sensitivity. Which of the following given symptoms is NOT the symptom of thyroxine overdose?

a- Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

b- Irregular heartbeat (arrhythmia)

c- tremors

d- constipation

e- dehydration

155) The virulence of a pathogen which refers to its ability to cause disease or harm to its host is usually measured by;

a. LD 

b. MLD

c. ID 

d. ID50

e. All of the above

156) What is the equivalent dose of atropine sulfate in micrograms if the prescriber ordered 0.4 mg SC q8h prn?

a- 100 micrograms 

b- 200 micrograms 

c- 400 micrograms 

d- 800 micrograms 

e- 1600 micrograms 

157) A lipid profile is a blood test that measures various types of lipids in the bloodstream. Which factor in the lipid profile is the most important risk factor for coronary heart disease?

a- High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol

b- Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

c- Total cholesterol

d- Triglycerides

e- All of the above

158) The antibodies that play a crucial role in protecting the developing fetus from infections, which are transferred from the mother's circulation to the baby's bloodstream, providing passive immunity in the first few months of life until the baby's own immune system matures?

a- IgD

b- IgM

c- IgG

d- IgA

e- IgE

159) A 50-year-old man with a history of celiac disease experiences chronic diarrhea and abdominal discomfort.  Blood tests reveal normal levels of IgG and IgM but a substantial decrease in IgA.  Which of the following statements is MOST likely true regarding this patient's condition?

A. He is at higher risk for severe allergic reactions

B. He has a weakened immune response in the respiratory tract

C. His B cells are not producing any antibodies

D. He has a compromised immune response in the digestive tract

E. His celiac disease is in remission

160) 3 grams are equal to how many grains?

a- 15.4

b- 18.2

c- 30.3

d- 46.3

e- 61.7

161) The least abundant antibody in humans is;

a- Immunoglobulin G

b- Immunoglobulin E

c- Immunoglobulin D

d- Immunoglobulin M

e- Immunoglobulin A

162) Which of the following modifications (addition of functional groups) to the ranitidine structure might contribute most to converting it from an H2 antagonist to an H2 agonist?

a- NO2 (Nitro group)

b- CH2OH (Hydroxyl group)

c- CHNH2 (Aminomethyl group)

d- CHONH2 (Carbamimidoyl group)

e - both c and d

163) Approximately how many grams are there in three pounds?

a- 32 grams

b- 64 grams

c- 454 grams

d- 908 grams

e- 1362 grams

164) What is the underlying cause of blackheads?

a- obstruction of sebaceous glands

b- clogging of hair follicles

c- blockage of sweat glands

d- excessive consumption of oily foods

e- overproduction of sebum by sebaceous glands

165) In the ER setting, a patient arrives with hypotension, high heart rate, elevated white blood cell count, and a rapid respiratory rate. The most likely initial fluid resuscitation choice for this patient would be:

a- Albumin colloid solution

b- Ringer lactate crystalloid solution

c- Dextrose 5% hypotonic solution

d- Hyper-tonic saline solution

e- Blood transfusion

166) Drugs are most likely to be stored in which part of the body?

a- fat tissue

b- proteins in the bloodstream

c- carbohydrates

d- all of the above

e- a and b only

167) Which of the following medication classes is known to constrict blood vessels?

A. Triptans

B. Beta-blockers

C. Antidepressants

D. Calcium channel blockers

E. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

168) Which of the following models of health most closely aligns with a physician who considers biological factors, psychological factors, and social determinants of health when treating a patient?

a- Biomedical Model

b- Biopsychosocial Model

c- Sociological Model

d- Psychological Model

e- Holistic Model

169) Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are a powerful research tool, but they do have limitations. Which of the following is the limitation of conducting a randomized controlled trial?

a- require significant resources to design, implement, and monitor

b- difficult to control external variables that can influence both the intervention and the outcome, making it difficult to isolate the true effect of the intervention

c- their findings might not always be applicable to the broader population meaning limited generalizability

d- possibility of blinding challenges, selection bias and reporting bias

e- all the listed options are disadvantages of conducting RCTs

170) Which of the following strategies can be valuable for promoting behavior change in older adults?

a- asking the patient to explain back information you've provided in their own words

b- breaking down complex concepts into smaller, more manageable pieces

c-  use of shorter sessions to make them less overwhelming and improve focus

d- using pictures or diagrams instead of just words

e- all these strategies can be valuable for promoting behavior change in older adults

171) The continued use of calcium channel blockers would be MOST concerning in certain situation(s) in patients due to potential negative effects?

a- heart failure

b- chronic kidney disease

c- myocardial Infarction

d- recurrent strokes

e- all of the options

172) Out of the given oral blood-thinning pills, which one typically needs a short course of injections with a different blood thinner first (for about a week) before you start taking the pill to achieve effective therapeutic anticoagulation?

A. Edoxaban

B. Dabigatran

C. Warfarin

D. Rivaroxaban

E. Apixaban

173) Among the following pharmacoeconomic studies, identify the simplest form of economic evaluation in healthcare because it assumes that the interventions being compared have equivalent clinical effectiveness. In other words, it focuses solely on the costs associated with each intervention, without considering any differences in health outcomes.

a- Cost-benefit analysis

b- Cost-minimization analysis

c- Cost-effectiveness analysis

d- Cost-utility analysis

e- Incremental cost-effectiveness ratio

174) A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease presents to the emergency department experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath.  Initial blood tests reveal elevated cardiac enzymes, suggestive of a heart attack.  Which of the following medication classes would be LEAST appropriate to administer intravenously in this acute setting?

A. Nitrates

B. Beta-blockers

C. Aspirin

D. Calcium channel blockers

E. Morphine

175) The immunoglobulins primarily involved in allergic reactions;

a- IgG

b- IgM

c- IgA

d- IgE

e- IgD

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam SLE Mock Test - Part 6

  Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam Questions

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126) Which type of tablet is designed to delay the release of the active ingredient until it reaches the intestine?

a) Chewable tablets

b) Enteric-coated tablets

c) Sugar-coated tablets

d) Effervescent tablets

e) Troches

127) Which of the following conditions is Troches commonly used to treat?

a) Diabetes

b) Hypertension

c) Oral thrush

d) Asthma

e) Morning sickness

128) PGP or P-glycoprotein is a drug transport protein. The 'P' in P-glycoprotein stands for;

a- peripheral

b- permeability

c- phosphatized

d- power-dependent

e- power-independent

129) Among the following medications, which one is most likely to show a significant increase in blood levels with even small changes in dose?

A. Sodium valproate

B. Carbamazepine

C. Digoxin

D. Warfarin

E. Phenytoin

130) What is the purpose of using occlusive dressings with topical corticosteroids in clinical practice?

A. To decrease the risk of skin atrophy

B. To reduce the penetration of the steroid into the dermis

C. To promote the absorption of the steroid systemically

D. To decrease the likelihood of bacterial skin infections

E. To enhance the penetration of the steroid into the dermis

131) Sublingual tablets are tablets that are designed to be;

a) placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve

b) inserted into the vagina

c) inserted into the rectum

d) chewed and swallowed

e) dissolved in water and injected into the body

132) Which statement regarding drug absorption is correct?

A. A drug is not absorbed unless its pKa is high.

B. A drug is absorbed only after it is dissolved in a solution.

C. A drug is not absorbed until it is metabolized.

D. Optimal surface area is required for drug absorption.

E. A drug is absorbed only after it has reached the colon.

133) Which of the following statements about cationic aqueous creams is INCORRECT?

A. They contain cationic surfactants as part of their primary emulsifying system

B. They contain anionic surfactants as part of their primary emulsifying system

C. Cationic aqueous creams are compatible with cations

D. The stability of the emulsion increases when mixed with cationic preparations

E. The activity of the drug increases when mixed with cationic preparations

134) Which of the following terms refers to a system made up of a liquid dispersed in another liquid?

A. Foam

B. Gel

C. Suspension

D. Aerosol

E. Emulsion

135) Which of the following statements accurately describes a drug with a very small volume of distribution (Vd)?

A. The drug has a low potency

B. The drug is eliminated from the body quickly

C. The drug does not accumulate in various tissues and organs

D. The drug has a high therapeutic index

E. The drug is widely distributed in the body

136) What is the recommended way to take Troches?

a) Swallow the Troche whole with water

b) Chew the Troche and swallow it

c) Let the Troche dissolve slowly in the mouth

d) Crush the Troche and mix it with water

e) Take it with a full glass of milk

137) Which one of the following medications does not undergo systemic absorption after oral administration?

A. Nystatin

B. Trimethoprim

C. Cephalexin

D. Oxytetracycline

E. Rifampicin

138) Which of the following routes of drug administration results in the MOST rapid onset of pharmacological effect?

A. Intramuscular

B. Oral 

C. Subcutaneous

D. Sublingual

E. Rectal 

139) Which of the following bacterial genera is most commonly associated with acne vulgaris?

A. Escherichia

B. Staphylococcus

C. Streptococcus

D. Propionibacterium

E. Clostridium

140) Which of the following is the reason for thiopentone having a shorter duration of action than phenobarbitone?

A. Slow absorption from the stomach

B. Higher solubility in water

C. Rapid metabolism by the liver.

D. Rapid excretion by the kidneys.

E. Higher lipid solubility

141) The pharmaceutical dosage form 'troches' is also known as:

a) Lozenges

b) Effervescent tablets

c) Dispersible tablets

d) Sustained-release tablets

e) Sublingual tablets

142) The type of injection for which a suspension is NOT an appropriate dosage form?

A. Intramuscular

B. Subcutaneous

C. Intra-articular

D. Intradermal

E. Intravenous

143) Which of the following microorganisms is not susceptible to treatment with clindamycin?

A. Clostridium difficile

B. Bacteroides species

C. Fusobacterium species

D. Clostridium perfringens

E. Bacteroides fragilis

144) Which of the following is NOT an official pharmacopeial testing procedure for tablets?

A. Dissolution testing

B. Content uniformity testing

C. Friability testing

D. Disintegration testing

E. Hardness testing

145) Which of the following is a common ingredient in Troches?

a) Sodium chloride

b) Calcium carbonate

c) Lactose

d) Sucrose

e) Fructose

146) What drug has the longest half-life among the following options?

a- Fentanyl

b- Amlodipine

c- Verapamil

d- Theophylline

e- Morphine

147) The drug that is not administered as a racemic mixture is:

A. Warfarin

B. Esomeprazole

C. Verapamil

D. Ibuprofen

E. Propoxyphene

148) Which is the most appropriate method for determining the bioequivalence of two tablets that contain the same amount of a drug made by different companies?

A. Measuring the serum concentrations of the drug after ingestion

B. Measuring the dissolution times of the tablets

C. Measuring the disintegration times of the tablets

D. Measuring the drug content of each tablet

E. Measuring the rate at which each drug is excreted

149) Which factor determines the time required to achieve a steady-state plasma level when a fixed dose of a drug eliminated by first-order kinetics is given intravenously at regular intervals?

A. The elimination half-life of the drug.

B. The bioavailability of the drug

C. The given dose of the drug

D. The dosing interval

E. The volume of distribution of the drug.

150) Which type of tablet is designed to dissolve slowly in the mouth?

a) Dispersible tablets

b) Hypodermic tablets

c) Sustained-release tablets

d) Troches

e) Implant tablets

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 8

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 7

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 5

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 4

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 3

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 2

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 1

----------- Continued

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Answer Keys

MCQ # - Correct option

126- b

127- c

128- b

129- e

130- e

131- a

132- b

133- b

134- e

135- c

136- c

137- a

138- d

139- d

140- e

141- a

142- e

143- a

144- e

145- d

146- b

147- b

148- a

149- a

150- d

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam SLE Mock Test - Part 5

  Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam Questions

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101) A patient with ulcerative colitis is taking Mesalazine for the management of his condition. What supplement is recommended to be taken along with the said drug?

a) Vitamin B6

b) Folic acid

c) Iron

d) Vitamin B12

e) Calcium

102) The recommended daily dose of folic acid during lactation is;

a) 400 mcg

b) 500 mcg

c) 600 mcg

d) 800 mcg

e) 1200 mcg

103) The effects of four antihypertensive drug classes (A-D) on the renin-angiotensin system are shown in the following table;

Parameters	Drug A	Drug B	Drug C	Drug D
Renin Conc.	🠋	🠉	🠉	🠉
Angiotensin-I Conc.	🠋	🠉	🠉	🠉
Angiotensin-II Conc.	🠋	🠋	🠉	🠉
Angiotensin Receptor	---	---	🠋	---

Which class is represented by drug -C?

A Diuretics

B Direct Renin inhibitors

C Angiotensin II receptor blockers

D Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

E) Adrenergics

104) The maximum daily dose of alprazolam for the management of anxiety in adults is;

a) 1.5 mg

b) 3 mg

c) 4 mg

d) 10 mg

e) 15 mg

105) Identify the area of the brain that is responsible for the higher cognitive functions like problem-solving, memory, judgment, language, behavior, etc.?

a- frontal lobe

b- temporal lobe

c- parietal lobe

d- occipital lobe

e- limbic lobe

106) Considering the structure-activity relationship of Aspirin, what will be the result of the substitution of halogen atoms on the aromatic ring?

a- all activity is lost

b- activity decreases

c- toxicity decreases

d- increases activity as well as toxicity

e- aspirin is transformed into ibuprofen

107) A patient is found to be allergic to penicillin therapy. Which medication among the following can be safely taken by this patient?

a- methicillin

b- doripenem

c- amoxicillin

d- azithromycin

e- cefixime

108) The correlation between INR and the risk of bleeding during warfarin therapy warrants that INR be maintained in a certain desirable range to achieve the optimum anticoagulant effect of warfarin. The recommended INR range is;

a- 2 to 3

b- 4 to 6

c- above 5

d- 6 to 8

e- 9 to 11

109) In antacids preparation, aluminum hydroxide and magnesium compounds are usually used in combination. The main reason behind this is;

a- to balance their constipative and purgative effects

b- to optimize activity in the stomach as well as the intestines

c- to reduce systemic absorption of each other

d- to prevent metabolic alkalosis

e- to correct electrolyte imbalance during PUD

110) Depilatory products are used for the purpose of;

a- nails care

b- hair treatment

c- hair removal

d- odor neutralization

e- skin tanning

111) The proton pump secretes hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen in exchange of;

a- Na+

b- K+ 

c- OH-

d- HCO3-

e- Cl-

112) Which of the following hormones is released in response to low blood glucose levels in the body?

a) Insulin

b) Glucagon

c) Adrenaline

d) Thyroxine

e) Renin

113) The most serious side effect of penicillin therapy can be?

a- Diarrhea 

b- Renal damage

c- Fatty liver

d- Anaphylactic shock

e- 8th cranial nerve damage

114) Thiopental is a;

a- Ultra-short-acting barbiturate

b- Short-acting barbiturate

c- Intermediate-acting barbiturate

d- Long-acting barbiturate

e- benzodiazepine agent

115) The use of morphine is contraindicated in patients with head injury. This is because;

a- of its increased addiction potential

b- it causes cerebral vasoconstriction

c- it increases intracranial tension

d- it causes a massive release of histamine

e- all of the above

116) Drug(s) that can cause vitamin B12 deficiency;

a- Cholestyramine 

b- Cimetidine 

c- Colchicine

d- Phenobarbital 

e- all of the above

117) Which drug among the following is not paired with its correct indication?

a- Colchicine – used to prevent or treat attacks of gout 

b- Trimethoprim – used to treat urinary tract infections

c- Omeprazole – an antagonist for Valproic Acid overdose

d- Cholestyramine – used to lower high cholesterol levels in the blood

e- Famotidine – a histamine blocker used to treat and prevent ulcers

118) Which drug among the following can cause folate deficiency?

a- trimethoprim 

b- pyrimethamine

c- triamterene 

d- methotrexate

e- all of the above

119) The use of loop diuretics can cause which nutrient depletion?

a- calcium

b- magnesium

c- potassium

d- zinc

e- all of the above

120) The pharmacological class of Fusidic acid is;

a- antiviral

b- antibiotic

c- antifungal

d- antihyperlipidemic

e- antacid

121) Enteric coated tablet is meant to disintegrate in the;

a- mouth

b- stomach or intestine

c- stomach

d- intestine

e- anus

122) Type 2 diabetes drug that is known to cause vitamin B12 deficiency is;

a- metformin

b- glyburide

c- pioglitazone 

d- acarbose

e- sitagliptin

123) An anti-asthmatic agent that is ineffective orally?

a- Theophylline

b- Metformin

c- Salbutamol

d- Montelukast Sodium

e- Sodium cromoglicate

124) Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a) Detoxification of toxic substances

b) Production of bile

c) Regulation of blood glucose levels

d) Production of red blood cells

e) Digestion of food

125) One of the following antibiotics is NOT safe to use in the penicillin-allergic patient;

a- vancomycin

b- meropenem

c- doxycycline

d- ciprofloxacin

e- gentamicin

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 8

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 7

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 6

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 4

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 3

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 2

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 1

----------- Continued

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Answer Keys

MCQ # - Correct option

101- 

102- 

103- 

104- c

105- a

106- d

107- d

108- a

109- 

110- c

111- b

112- b

113- d

114- a

115- c

116- e

117- c

118- e

119- e

120- b

121- d

122- a

123- e

124- d

125- b

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  Saudi Pharmacist Licensing Exam Questions

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76) Choose the one statement that best describes the role of colipase in lipolytic activity?

A) hydrolyzes cholesterol esters into cholesterol and free fatty acids

B) breaks down triglycerides into absorbable free fatty acids and glycerol

C) breaks down waxes into fatty acid and fatty alcohol

D) plays an important role in the degradation and excretion of phospholipids

E) functions as a cofactor for the optimal activity of pancreatic lipase enzyme

77) The effects of four antihypertensive drug classes (A-D) on the renin-angiotensin system are shown in the following table;

Parameters	Drug A	Drug B	Drug C	Drug D
Renin Conc.	🠋	🠉	🠉	🠉
Angiotensin-I Conc.	🠋	🠉	🠉	🠉
Angiotensin-II Conc.	🠋	🠋	🠉	🠉
Angiotensin Receptor	---	---	🠋	---

Which class is represented by drug -B?

A Diuretics

B Direct Renin inhibitors

C Angiotensin II receptor blockers

D Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

E) Adrenergics

78) The antihypertensive drug that is safe in breastfeeding mothers is;

a) Atenolol

b) Nadolol

c) Telmisartan 

d) Acebutolol
e) Metoprolol 

79) The BMI of an adult patient is calculated and it comes out to be 18.0. This result can be interpreted as;

a) the patient has a healthy body weight

b) the patient is overweight

c) this patient is underweight

d) the patient is on the verge of obesity

e) medically this patient is morbidly obese

80) The statement that is INCORRECT about paracetamol is;

a) maximum of eight 500mg tablets can be taken daily

b) it is safe during pregnancy and breastfeeding

c) long-term use is associated with increased rates of heart attack and kidney failure

d) it can increase blood pressure

e) its main metabolite is paracetamol sulfate 

81) The statement that is not true about hyaluronic acid?

a) oral hyaluronic supplementation is not recommended in people who have a history of cancer

b) hyaluronic acid has no role in healing wounds

c) naturally present in eyes and joint fluids

d) reduces skin wrinkles and keeps it stretched

e) it is found in citrus fruits

82) Ibuprofen is a;

a) salicylic acid derivative

b) propionic acid derivative

c) anthranilic acid derivative

d) pyrazolone derivative

e) acetic acid derivative

83) Colloidal silicon dioxide that is marketed as AEROSIL is widely used in the manufacture of powders, capsules, and tablets. What role does this pharmaceutical excipient play?

a) improves solubility in water

b) decreases the viscosity of the formulation during manufacturing

c) reduces the particle size of powders

d) enhance the flowability of a powder

e) gives a shiny agreeable appearance to the final product

84) The aminoglycoside antibiotic that is used as a first-line anti-TB drug is;

a) amikacin

b) tobramycin

c) streptomycin

d) kanamycin 

e) neomycin

85) Which carbohydrate among the following is made up of two molecules of glucose?

a) lactose

b) sucrose

c) maltose

d) mannose

e) fructose

86) The example of a non-nutritive sweetener is;

a) Saccharin 

b) Sucralose 

c) Aspartame 

d) Aspartame 

e) all of the above

87) The maximum daily dose of alprazolam for the management of panic disorder in adults is;

a) 1.5 mg

b) 3 mg

c) 4 mg

d) 10 mg

e) 15 mg

88) Which chemical constituent is NOT naturally obtained from the opium poppy plant?
a- codeine
b- thebaine
c- papaverine 
d- noscapine
e- theophylline

89) The area of the brain that is responsible for the control of vision and recognition is;

a- frontal lobe

b- temporal lobe

c- occipital lobe

d- parietal lobe

e- limbic lobe

90) Which of the following means that individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information needed to make appropriate health decisions?

A) Health literacy

B) Cultural competency

C) Communication skills

D) professional communication

E) Health proficiency

91) Against drugs, their usual indications are given. Which one is actually an INCORRECT match?

a- orlistat: obesity

b- alendronate: osteoporosis

c- tadalafil: COPD

d- theophylline: asthma

e- flutamide: antiandrogen

92) One of the classes of skeletal muscle relaxants is neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blockers. Identify the depolarizing NMJ blockers from among the following agents?

a- atracurium

b- tubocurarine

c- gallamine

d- decamethonium

e- rocuronium

93) Auranofin would be in which classification of drugs?
a- angiotensin 2 receptor blockers

b- disease-modifying antirheumatic agents

c- 3rd-generation antihistamines

d- 5th-generation cephalosporins

e- cytotoxic antimetabolites

94) A diabetic patient has developed hypoglycemia as a consequence of taking his prescribed medications. To treat this, 500 mL IV D5W is given. Calculate the amount of dextrose in the dispensed IV bag?

a- There are 5 grams of dextrose in this bag

b- There are 25 grams of dextrose in this bag

c- There are 50 grams of dextrose in this bag

d- There are 250 grams of dextrose in this bag

e- There are 500 grams of dextrose in this bag

95) Chondroitin sulfate which is one of the building blocks of cartilage is composed of the repeating units of;

a) hyaluronic acid

b) glucuronic acid

c) sulfated glucosamine

d) uronic acid

e) glucosamine and uronic acid

96) The HYPERTONIC solution(s) among the following is(are);

a- 3 % NaCl

b- 0.9 % NaCl

c- 5 % Dextrose in water

d- 0.45 % NaCl

e- both a and c

97) The mechanism of action of Alprazolam includes all of the following but one;

a) binds to the BNZ-1 receptors mediating sedation and anti-anxiety effects 

b) alprazolam binds to the BNZ-2 receptors producing ant-convulsive activity

c) alprazolam binds to GABA-A receptors

d) binds to GABA-B receptors producing stabilization

e) increased neuronal membrane permeability to chloride ions

98) Recall the skeletal structures of the various NSAID compounds and identify the one that has a single benzene ring in it?

a- ibuprofen

b- naproxen

c- piroxicam

d- indomethacin

e- diclofenac

99) Brainstorming your professional pharmaceutical knowledge, which statement is gravely distorted?

a- Calcium daily dose in men above 70 years old is 1200 mg

b- Basic drugs are better absorbed from the stomach

c- A heavy machine operator with runny nose can take cetirizine

d- GCT is performed in pregnancy to screen for gestational diabetes

e- Varicella vaccine must be kept at freezing temperatures

100) Relative sweetness of Sucrose to Sucralose is;

a) 1 : 200

b) 1 : 400

c) 1 : 600

d) 1 : 800

e) 1 : 10,000

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 8

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 7

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 6

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 5

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 3

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 2

SPLE Prometric Exam Practice Questions - Part 1

----------- Continued